If you address a judge as 'my lord', is it to be assumed that you are claiming ownership of him? And what about 'My God]'? And if I say 'My dear chap, the mistake was obviously yours', is it to be concluded (a) that I possess the dear chap, and (b) that the dear chap is the possessor of the mistake?
Even a cursory glance at the OED shows that the use of the word my does not necessarily imply possession, but can be used vocatively, prefixed affectionately to terms of relationship or endearment.
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